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Are you looking for Multiple choice questions MCQ on Indian constitution with Answers? In this article you will find lots of objective questions on Indian constitution.
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Indian Constitutional Development-
1. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by :
(a) Stafford Cripps
(b) A.V. Alexander
(c) Lord Pethick Lawrence
(d) Hugh Gaitskell
Ans: (c)
2. The Constitution of India was adopted by the:
(a) Governor General
(b) British Parliament
(c) Constituent Assembly
(d) Parliament of India
Ans: (c)
3. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met on
(a) 6th December, 1946
(b) 9th December, 1946
(c) 20th February, 1947
(d) 3rd June, 1947
Ans: (b)
4. When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on 31 st
October, 1947, its reduced membership was:
(a) 299
(b) 311(c) 319
(d) 331
Ans: (a)
5. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of
India? [CDS 1995]
(a) Dr. B.N. Rao
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) M.C. Setalvad
Ans: (a)
6. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up :
(a) under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
(b) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
(c) through a resolution of the provisional government
(d) by the Indian National Congress
Ans: (b)
7. The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution for Independent India was set
up in :
(a) 1945
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Ans: (b)
8. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) Sachidananda Sinha
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) P. Upendra
Ans: (a)
9. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian
Constitution? [CDS 1992]
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Ans: (d)
10. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?(a) about 6 months in 1949
(b) exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
(c) about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
(d) about 3 years since Dec 9, 1946
Ans: (d)
11. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) C. Rajagopalachari
Ans: (b)
12. The demand for the Constituent Assembly was put forward by the Indian National
Congress in 1936 at its session held at :
(a) Kanpur
(b) Bombay
(c) Lucknow
(d) Lahore
Ans: (c)
13. The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of the
Constitution:
(a) by a majority vote
(b) by a two-thirds majority
(c) by consensus
(d) unanimously
Ans: (c)
14. The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised
by the
(a) U.S. Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity
Ans: (c)
15. Match the following:
Committees of Constituent Assembly Chairmen
A. Drafting Committee 1. Vallabhbhai PateI
B. Committee on Fundamental and Minority Rights 2. Jawaharlal NehruC. Union Constitution Committee 3. Kanhiyalal Munshi
D. Working Committee 4. B.R. Ambedkar
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
16. Which one of the following statements is correct? [IAS 2004]
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year
1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the
Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
Ans: (a)
17. Match the following:
A. July 22, 1947 1. Adoption of National Song by the Constituent Assembly
B. January 24, 1950 2. Adoption of National Emblem by the Government
C. January 26, 1950 3. Adoption of National Calendar by the Government
D. March 22, 1957 4. Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (a)
18. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
I. India’s National Song-Vande Mataram
II. India s National Flower-Rose
III. India’s National Animal-Tiger
IV. India’s National Bird-Eagle
(a) I and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I and III
Ans: (d)
19. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constitutent Assembly of India in:
(a) July, 1948
(b) July, 1950
(c) July, 1947
(d) August, 1947
Ans: (c)
20. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
21. Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British constitutional
experiments in India?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Indian Council Act, 1909
(c) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (b)
22. Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the
first time?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (a)
23. Which of the following features do not contribute to making the Indian Constitution the
bulkiest in the world?
I. Various types of emergencies are considered in detail.II. It codifies the rights and privileges of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
III. It enumerates all types of Indian citizenship and how it can be terminated.
IV. It contains not only a list of fundamental rights but also the restrictions to be placed on them.
(a) I and II
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
24. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives Resolution?
I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly.
II. It called for just rights for minorities.
III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights.
IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) Only III
Ans: (c)
25. Which of the following items is wrongly matched?
(a) December 9, 1947-Constituent Assemby’s first meeting
(b) November 26, 1949-the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the
Constitution
(c) January 24,’ 1950-the Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent
Assembly
(d) January 26, 1950-the date of commencement of the Constitution
Ans: (a)
26. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution came into force from November
26, 1949 ?
I. Provisions relating to citizenship.
II. Provisions relating to elections.
III. Provisions relating to provisional Parliament.
IV. Fundamental Rights.
(a) I and II(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) None
Ans: (c)
27. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the
Legislature?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
28. The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by :
(a) Charter Act, 1833
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (b)
29. Consider the following statements. The Indian Constitution is :
(1) unwritten Constitution.
(2) written Constitution.
(3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935.
(a) 2 and 1 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: (b)
30. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning:
1. the State treats all religions equally.
2. freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people.
3. educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction.
4. the State makes no discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
31. The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time conceded by
the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the:(a) Cripps proposals
(b) August Offer
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935
Ans: (b)
32. Which of the following was adopted from the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of
Government of India?
(a) Four lions
(b) Chariot wheel
(c) Horse
(d) Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’
Ans: (a)
33. The office of Governor General of India was created by: [Asstt Grade 1991]
(a) Charter Act, 1813
(b) Charter Act, 1833
(c) Government of India Act, 1858
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (c)
34. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Vallabhbhai PateI
Ans: (a)
35. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of power to the
Indians?
(a) February, 1947
(b) August, 1947
(c) June, 1948
(d) June, 1949
Ans: (c)
36. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution? [UDC
1994]
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) B.N. Rao
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (a)
37. Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?
(a) It is completely based on British Constitution
(b) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935
(c) It is a mixture of several Constitutions
(d) It is original
Ans: (c)
38. Match the following:
A. Govt. of India Act, 1919 1. Provincial autonomy
B. Govt. of India Act, 1935 2. Separate Electorate
C. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Dyarchy
D. Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Constituent Assembly
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (d)
39. The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Government of India Act, 1947
(c) Constitution of South Africa
(d) Constitution of UK
Ans: (c)
40. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lahore
(d) New Delhi
Ans: (d)
41. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of
the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2005]
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) J.B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Ans: (c)
42. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly? [CDS 2009]
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Acharya J.B. Kriplani
(c) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan
(d) K.M. Munshi
Ans: (c)
43. Which among the following is/are the feature (s) of a Federal State? [NDA 2008]
1. The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are clearly laid
down
2. It has an unwritten Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
44. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India? [NDA 2008]
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) John Mathai
Ans: (a)
45. Under whom among the following was the first draft of the Constitution of India
prepared in October 1947 by the advisory branch of the office of the Constituent
Assembly? [IAS 2006]
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) B.N. Rau
Ans: (d)
46. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution
of India? [CDS 2012]
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To protect monuments of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the history of India
Ans: (c)
47. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in
response to the [CDS 2011]
(a) Minto-Morley Reforms
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(c) Simon Commission
(d) First Round Table Conference
Ans: (c)
48. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A. B. C. and D in the
year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct? [CDS 2011]
(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh
was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of
categories C and D states.
(b) The Pajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner
was the executive head of categories Band C states. The Governor was the executive head of
the category D states.
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the
executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of
categories C and D states.
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was
the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories
C and D states.
Ans: (c)
49. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because:
(a) this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929
(b) it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution
(c) the British did not want to leave India earlier than this date
(d) it was an auspicious day
Ans: (a)
50. The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by :
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) M.N. Roy
Ans: (d)
51. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) elected by Provincial Assemblies
(b) elected directly by people(c) nominated by the government
(d) only representatives of the princely States
Ans: (a)
52. Which of the following statements regarding the’ Constituent Assembly are true?
1. It was not based on Adult Franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-party body.
4. It worked through several Committees.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
53. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in
July 1946? [UTI 1993]
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) K.M. Munshi
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Ans: (b)
54. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on :
(a) Aug 15, 1947
(b) Jan 30, 1948
(c) Jan 26, 1950
(d) Nov 26, 1929
Ans: (c)
55. Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (b)
56. The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration
was made by :
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1900
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1935(d) Indian Councils Act, 1919
Ans: (b)
57. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:
(a) British Parliament
(b) Federal Legislature
(c) State Legislature
(d) Governor-General
Ans: (d)
58. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(a) Provincial autonomy
(b) Dyarchy of centre
(c) Bicameral Legislature
(d) All India federation
Ans: (c)
59. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1909
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919
(c) Charter Act, 1831
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (d)
60. What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(a) A federation was suggested
(b) Unitary form of government was recommended
(c) Complete independence guaranteed
(d) Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level
Ans: (c)
Constitutional Preamble Sources
1. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the
Constitution of: [IAS 1992]
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Ireland
(d) UK
Ans: (b)
2. The Indian Constitution closely follows the constitutional system of: [I.Tax1989]
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Switzerland
(d) Russia
Ans: (b)
3. Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the
American Federation? [IAS 1993]
(a) A single citizenship
(b) Dual Judiciary
(c) Three lists in the Constitution
(d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Ans: (d)
4. The inspiration of ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was derived from:
(a) American revolution
(b) French revolution
(c) Russian revolution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
5. Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the State of which
country ?
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) Ireland
(d) Russia
Ans: (a)
6. The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as the:
(a) British Monarch
(b) President of USA
(c) President of Egypt
(d) President of RussiaAns: (a)
7. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Ninth Schedule
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
Ans: (d)
8. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested in the:
[Railways 1994]
(a) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Government
(d) Parliament
Ans: (a)
9. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Presidential Government
(b) Parliamentary Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) Independence of Judiciary
Ans: (a)
10. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?
(a) Executive is responsible to Judiciary
(b) Executive is responsible to Legislature
(c) Judiciary is responsible to Executive
(d) Legislature is responsible to Executive
Ans: (b)
11. Match the following:
Constitutional Provisions Sources
A. Federation 1. USA
B. Parliamentary 2. Britain
C. Directive Principle 3. Canada
D. Fundamental Rights 4. Ireland
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 1
(b) 2 3 1 4(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (d)
12. Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar
Constitution of Germany?
(a) The idea of a federation with a strong centre
(b) The method of presidential elections
(c) The Emergency powers
(d) Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency
Ans: (d)
13. Match the following:
Constitutional Features Sources
A. Rule of Law 1. German Constitution
B. Directive Principles 2. Australian Constitution
C. Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitution
D. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency 4. British Constitution
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (b)
14. Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched?
(a) Judicial review – British practice
(b) Concurrent List – Australian Constitution
(c) Directive Principles – Irish Constitution
(d) Fundamental Rights – US Constitution
Ans: (a)
15. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of rule of law, parliamentary
system and law-making procedure?
(a) US Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Canadian Constitution
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
16. The Constitution of India is designed to work as a unitary government:
(a) in normal times
(b) in times of Emergency
(c) when the Parliament so desires
(d) at the will of the President
Ans: (b)
17. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India does not resemble the
American Constitution?
(a) Written Constitution
(b) Federal form of government
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Parliamentary form of government
Ans: (d)
18. Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble?
1. When the Constitution was enacted.
2. The ideals that were to be achieved.
3. The system of government
4. The source of authority
(a) II, III and IV
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
19. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?
(a) It is not enforceable in a court of law
(b) the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution
(c) It has been amended twice
(d) All the above are correct
Ans: (a)
20. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:
(a) Italian Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Constitution of USA
Ans: (d)
21. Secularism means: [RRB 1994]
(a) suppression of all religions
(b) freedom of worship to minorities(c) separation of religion from State
(d) a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious
faith
Ans: (d)
22. In a Federal State: [I. Tax 1993]
(a) States are more powerful than the Centre
(b) Centre is more powerful than States
(c) a Presidential form of government functions
(d) Constitution effects division of powers between the Centre and States with safeguards
against transgression of jurisdiction
Ans: (a)
23. India opted for a federal form of government because of: [Railways 1994]
(a) vast-territory
(b) cultural integration
(c) linguistic and regional diversity
(d) administrative convenience
Ans: (c)
24. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads:
(a) We, the people of India – adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution’
(b) We, the people of Constitutent Assembly –adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution
(c) We, the citizens of India – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution
(d) We, the people of India – in our Constituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to
ourselves this Constitution
Ans: (d)
25. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under
Article 368
(b) Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended
(c) Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if
no change in the basic structure is made
(d) Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective Resolution
Ans: (c)
26. The word ‘socialist secular’ and ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’ were added to our
Constitution by :
(a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
(b) 44th Amendment of the Constitution
(c) 46th Amendment of the Constitution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
27. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that:
(a) it shall stand part of the Constitution
(b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution
(c) it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution
(d) it has separate entity in the Constitution
Ans: (d)
28. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is:
(a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy
Ans: (c)
29. India is a democratic republic, because:
(a) there is independence of judiciary
(b) the Head of the State is elected by the people
(c) there is distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
(d) there is Parliamentary supremacy
Ans: (b)
30. The Preamble of our Constitution:
(a) is a part of the Constitution
(b) contains the spirit of the Constitution
(c) is a limitation upon the granted power
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
31. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Secularism
(b) Sociaiism
(c) Democratic Republic
(d) Federalism
Ans: (d)
32. The source of India’s sovereignty lies in the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) People of India
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
Ans: (d)
33. Who among the following moved the Objectives Resolution which formed tile basis of
the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on Dec 13, 1946?
[CDS 2009]
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (d)
34. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
Lists: [CDS 2009]
List-I – (Provision of the Constitution of India)
A. Amendment of the Constitution
B. Directive Principles
C. Emergency Power of the President
D. The Union-State Relationship
List-II (Source)
1. Constitution of Germany
2. Constitution of Canada
3. Constitution of South Africa
4. Irish Constitution
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
Ans: (b)
35. The constitution of India is republican because it
(a) provides for an elected Parliament
(b) provides for adult franchise
(c) contains a bill of rights
(d) has no hereditary elements
Ans: (d)
36. Which one among the following statements is not correct ?The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with [CDS 2012]
(a) Article 39(d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization
laws
(b) Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the
socialist goal to the fullest extent
(c) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article
(d) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status
Ans: (c)
37. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from [SSC Grad 2011]
(a) England
(b) U.S.A.
(c) Canada
(d) France
Ans: (a)
38. The Indian Constitution comprises of [BPSC 2011]
(a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
(b) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules
(c) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules
(d) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules
Ans: (a)
39. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties?
(a) USA
(b) Canada
(c) Erstwhile USSR
(d) UK
Ans: (c)
40. The word ‘Socialist’ was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to :
(a) eliminate inequality in economic and political status
(b) eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs
(c) eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life
(d) eliminate class based society
Ans: (a)
41. Which of the pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Republic – Head of the State is hereditary Monarch
(b) Sovereign – Constitution rests on people’s will
(c) Democratic – Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country
(d) Secular – State is without any religion of its ownAns: (d)
42. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in:
(a) the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj
(b) the Nehru Report
(c) a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress
(d) the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly
Ans: (d)
43. The part of the Constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the framers is :
(a) directive principles
(b) fundamental rights
(c) preamble
(d) citizenship
Ans: (c)
44. Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal? [IAS 1994]
(a) A written and rigid Constitution
(b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and States
Ans: (d)
45. The Indian Constitution is regarded as :
(a) federal
(b) unitary
(c) parliamentary
(d) federal in form and unitary in spirit
Ans: (d)
Citizenship, Fundamental Rights,
Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights
granted? [Railways 1995]
(a) Article 29 and 31
(b) Article 29 and 32
(c) Article 29 and 30
(d) Article 30 and 31
Ans: (c)
2. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to move freely
(d) Freedom of the press
Ans: (d)
3. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Constitutional Rights
(d) Natural Rights
Ans: (a)
4. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the
following Fundamental Rights is denied to him? [Asstt Grade 1994]
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right against Exploitation
Ans: (b)
5. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by:
(a) war or external aggression
(b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State
(c) internal armed rebellion
(d) financial crisis
Ans: (a)
6. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: [NDA 1992](a) sovereignty of the people
(b) equality of opportunity for all
(c) limited government
(d) equality of all before law
Ans: (c)
7. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution
of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: [IAS 1995]
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
Ans: (d)
8. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented :
(a) in the Supreme Court only
(b) in the High Court only
(c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court
(d) first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court
Ans: (c)
9. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? [IAS
2008]
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of
other drugs which are injurious to health.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
10. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:
(a) religion
(b) caste
(c) population
(d) colour
Ans: (a)
11. The Fundamental individual are:
(a) limited to the State action only
(b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons
(c) meant to protect persons against the police action(d) All of the above are correct
Ans: (d)
12. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to :
(a) all persons living within the territory of India
(b) all Indian citizens living in India
(c) all persons domiciled in India
(d) all persons natural as well as artificial
Ans: (a)
13. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? [IAS 2008]
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Ans: (b)
14. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to :
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 15(4)
Ans: (c)
15. Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression – Include freedom of press
(b) Freedom of conscience – Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs
(c) Right to Personal liberty – Include right to carry on any trade or business
(d) Right to Equality – Include principles of natural justice
Ans: (c)
16. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights· granted under Articles
14 and 19 of the Constitution are:
(a) not available at all
(b) available to armed forces but not to other forces
(c) available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff
(d) available only according to law made by Parliament
Ans: (d)
17. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to :
(a) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a)
(b) culture and education under Articles 29 and 30(c) life and personal liberty under Article 21
(d) equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14
Ans: (c)
18. The Constitution names our country as :
(a) Bharat
(b) India, that is Bharat
(c) Hindustan
(d) Aryavarta
Ans: (b)
19. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:
(a) the national language of India
(b) the language of communication between the State Governments
(c) the official language of the Union of India
(d) the language of communication between the Union Government and the State
Governments
Ans: (c)
20. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine? [Delhi
Police 1994]
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years
Ans: (b)
21. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth
(b) Acquiring property
(c) Descent
(d) Naturalisation
Ans: (b)
22. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship? [Asstt
Grade 1992]
(a) Parliament
(b) State Legislatures
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Ans: (a)
23. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian citizenship iscorrect ?
(a) If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential.
(b) If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must have resided
in India for 5 years.
(c) If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is
an Indian.
(d) Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
Ans: (c)
24. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by:
(a) children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th
January, 1950
(b) children born of Indian citizens abroad
(c) incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the
Constitution
(d) naturalization
Ans: (a)
25. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :
(a) Part II
(b) Part II, Articles 5-11
(c) Part II, Articles 5-6
(d) Part I, Articles 5-11
Ans: (b)
26. Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring
citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?
(a) Article 5
(b) Article 7
(c) Article 8
(d) Article 9
Ans: (d)
27. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who
have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provisions is
incorrect?
(a) He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the
Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948
(c) Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a
citizen
(d) Such person has got married in IndiaAns: (a)
28. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in:
(a) Part II of the Constitution
(b) the Citizenship Act, 1955
(c) Schedule I of the Constitution
(d) various enactments by Parliament
Ans: (b)
29. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if:
1. a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
2. a person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for
not less than 10 years within five years of his registration.
3. the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
4. a person who is a citizen by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
30. A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if his/her:
(a) father is a citizen of India
(b) mother is a citizen of India
(c) father is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth
(d) father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth
Ans: (d)
31. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for
______ immediately before making an application:
(a) six months
(b) one year
(c) three years
(d) five years
Ans: (d)
32. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘The Heart and
Soul of the Constitution’ ?
(a) Right of Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (d)33. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of
India?
(a) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
(b) Freedoms of movement, residence and profession
(c) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
(d) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
Ans: (d)
34. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
Subject List
(a) Stock Exchange State List
(b) Forest Concurrent List
(c) Insurance Union List
(d) Marriage and Divorce Concurrent List
Ans: (a)
35. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) State legislature
Ans: (b)
36. According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:
(a) traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour
(b) monopoly of trade
(c) sale of incenses
(d) visit to terrorist infected areas
Ans: (a)
37. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights
are available to :s
(a) citizens and non-citizens
(b) natural persons as well as artificial persons
(c) citizen only
(d) all persons who have juristic personality
Ans: (a)
38. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms
enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution?(a) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(b) Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
(c) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
(d) Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation; trade or business
Ans: (b)
39. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move to the
Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the:
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ans: (b)
40. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because they
are:
(a) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(b) human rights
(c) transcendental rights
(d) part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution
Ans: (d)
41. Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between
Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for
protecting individuals from State encroachment.
II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive
instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order.
III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were
added by the first Amendment.
IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (c)
42. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on :
(a) the Courts
(b) an effective opposition in Parliament(c) resources available to the Government
(d) public cooperation
Ans: (c)
43. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism
and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in :
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble
(c) Fundamental Futies
(d) Directive Principles
Ans: (c)
44. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by :
(a) an amendment of the Constiution
(b) a judgement of the Supreme Court
(c) an order issued by the President
(d) a Legislation adopted by the Parliament
Ans: (a)
45. Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental Duties?
I. These are not enforceable.
II. They are primarily moral duties.
III. They are not related to any legal rights.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I and II
Ans: (a)
46. The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is :
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: (c)
47. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A of the Constitution are:
(a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the noncompliance
(b) like Directive Principles that : are mandates to people
(c) like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable(d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of
education value
Ans: (d)
48. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
in accordance with the recommendations of:
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi Committee
Ans: (c)
49. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:
(a) Fundamental Right of every citizen
(b) Fundamental Duty of every citizen
(c) Directive Principle of State policy
(d) ordinary duty of every citizen
Ans: (b)
50. The Fundamental Duties:
I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.
II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A.
III. are not justiciable.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) III only
Ans: (d)
51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health,
every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. [CDS 2008]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
52. Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution?
I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture.
II. To abide by the Constitution.
III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame.
IV. To render national service when called upon to do so.
(a) I, II and III
(b) l and II
(c) I, II and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
53. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of:
(a) giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights
(b) curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities
(c) preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights
(d) giving more power to the executive
Ans: (b)
54. The Constitution describes India as a :
(a) Federation of States
(b) Union of States
(c) Confederation of States
(d) Unitary State
Ans: (b)
55. The ‘Union of India’ consists of:
I. States
II. Union Territories
III. Acquired Territories
(a) l only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (a)56. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of
the Constitution of India ? [IAS 2006]
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Ans: (a)
57. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of
India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on 1st·July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India
at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Ans: (c)
58. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed
Right to Education in India is correct? [CDS 2011]
(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and’ therefore universally guarantees
education to all citizens of India
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes
operational from the year 2015
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State
in the world
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under
the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans: (d)
59. Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? [SSC
(10+2) 2010]
(a) Election Commission
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Parliament and Assemblies
Ans: (c)
60. In India the right to “freedom of speech and expression” is restricted on the grounds of
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.2. contempt of court.
3. friendly relation with foreign states.
4. protection of minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2010]
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
61. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo
warranto?
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a
servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in appointing
such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2012]
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
62. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on
newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is
included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one
among the following statements is correct? [CDS 2012]
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of
the Constitution
(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Articles 19 of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
63. Right to Information is [Asstt Commdt 2011]
(a) fundamental right
(b) legal right
(c) neither fundamental right nor legal right(d) both fundamental right as well as legal Right
Ans: (a)
64. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in
the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption.
3. They are applicable only to citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [Asstt Commdt 2011]
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
65. Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched? [Asstt Commdt 2011]
(a) Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state
(b) Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state
(c) Equality before law : Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens
(d) Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed to only Indian citizens
Ans: (b)
66. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? [CDS
2011]
(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans: (c)
67. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation’ in
the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: [CDS 2011]
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
68. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to [CDS 2011]
(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralized state
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Ans: (a)
69. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights
over the Directive Principles of State Policy? [CPO SI 2010]
(a) Golaknath Case
(b) Keshavananda Bharti Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) All the above cases
Ans: (a)
70. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to
non-citizens? [BPSC 2011]
(a) Right to constitutional remedies
(b) Freedom to speech
(c) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country
(d) Freedom to acquire property
Ans: (b)
71. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the
Constitution of India? [BPSC 2011]
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Work
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Housing
Ans: (c)
72. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
[CSAT 2011]
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans: (a)
73. A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the:(a) three organs of government
(b) Centre and States
(c) Legislature and the Executive
(d) Constitution and the States
Ans: (b)
74. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a
simple majority.
2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its
territory.
3. The President’s recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on
redistributing territory of any State.
4. The President must receive the State’s opinion before recommending a Bill on altering
the name of the State.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and III
Ans: (d)
75. Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:
(a) the President or a Governor
(b) foreign sovereigns only
(c) the President only
(d) None
Ans: (a)
76. Censorship of the press:
(a) is prohibited by the Constitution
(b) has to be judged by the test of reasonableness
(c) is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19
(d) is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution
Ans: (b)
77. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of
I. defamation
II. contempt of court
III. protecting a scheduled tribe
IV. friendly relations with foreign states(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
78. The right against exploitation prohibits children:
(a) below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses
(b) below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations
(c) below 14 years from working on family farms
(d) from doing all the above
Ans: (b)
79. Which of the following comes under Right to Equality?
1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race.
2. Equal protection of the laws.
3. Equal pay for equal work.
4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
80. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of
the Indian citizens?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(d) None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution
Ans: (b)
81. The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to :
(a) citizens of India only
(b) all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
(c) any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons
(d) an aggrieved individual alone
Ans: (b)
82. Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as foreigners
residing in Indian territory ?
I. Cultural and Educational Rights.II. Right to Freedom of religion.
III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of
birth.
IV. Right to personal liberty.
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
83. Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the
Constitution are called ‘fundamental’ ?
I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens.
II. They are superior to ordinary law
III. They are fundamental for governing the country.
IV. They are not absolute.
(a) II and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) III and IV
Ans: (c)
84. The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment Act.
(a) form associations; 44th
(b) property; 44th
(c) against exploitation; 42nd
(d) private property; 42nd
Ans: (b)
85. Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights?
I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces.
II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President.
III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces.
IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution
(a) I and II
(b) II, III and IV(c) I and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen
years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other
hazardous employment’? [IAS 2004]
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368
Ans: (a)
87. Match the following [IAS 2004]
Articles of the Constitution of India
1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 16
4. Article 17
Provision
1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race,
caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection
of laws within the territory of India
3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to
employment or appointment to any office under the State
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
88. Consider the following statements:
2. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India lays down that no person shall be deprived of
his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
3. The Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no person can be convicted for any
offence except for the violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act
charged as an offence.Which of these statements is/are correct? [CDS 2004]
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
89. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principle
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Judicial Decision
Ans: (b)
90. Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education for children
upto the age of 14 years? [Railways 1993]
(a) Article 45
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 29
(d) Article 32
Ans: (a)
91. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Part III
(b) Part IV
(c) Part V
(d) Part II
Ans: (b)
92. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy? [CBI 1993]
(a) To raise the level of nutrition
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections
(d) To separate the Judiciary from the Executive
Ans: (b)
93. Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Uniform civil code for all citizens
(c) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
(d) Promotion of cottage industries
Ans: (d)94. Which of the following cannot be termed ‘Gandhian’ among the Directive Principles?
(a) Prevention of cow slaughter
(b) Promotion of cottage industries
(c) Establishment of village panchayats
(d) Uniform civil code for the country
Ans: (d)
95. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV?
I. Equal pay for equal work.
II. Uniform civil code.
III. Small family norm
IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
96. Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by amendments to the
Constitution?
I. To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life.
II. Right of workers to participate in management of industries.
III. Right to work
IV. To protect and maintain places of historic interest.
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I and II
Ans: (d)
97. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India? [IAS 2004]
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the language listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans: (d)98. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:
(a) contains provrsions relating to elections to Panchayats
(b) contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
(c) contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance Commission
(d) was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
Ans: (b)
99. The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.
(a) First
(b) Ninth
(c) Thirty-fifth
(d) Thirty-sixth
Ans: (a)
100. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is
mentioned in the: [Asstt Comm 2008]
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans: (b)
101. Match the following:
A. Xth Schedule 1: Provision as to the disqualifications on the grounds of defection
B. VIIIth Schedule 2. Union, State and Concurrent Lists
C. VIIth Schedule 3. Languages
D. Vlth Schedule 4. Related to tribal areas
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (c)
102. Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule though it is an official
language of a State?
(a) English
(b) Sindhi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) KashmiriAns: (a)
103. Consider the following statements:
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for every
citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the
Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in general
or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2005]
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
104. In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall ?
[CDS 2005]
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers Government
Ans: (c)
105. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal? [CDS
2005]
(a) Details of Indian Union and its territory
(b) Citizenship
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Union Executive
Ans: (b)
Parts/ Articles of the Constitution,Emergency Provisions
1. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s rule promulgated on any
State in India? [Bank PO 1994]
(a) 356
(b) 352
(c) 360
(d) 370
Ans: (a)
2. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by the
Parliament within:
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 weeks(c) 2 months
(d) 3 months
Ans: (a)
3. The President’s rule can be proclaimed in a State: [CDS 1994]
(a) when a bill introduced by the State Government in the State Legislature is defeated
(b) if the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State is satisfied that a
situation is likely to arise in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in
accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(c) if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on
in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(d) when the Governor and the Chief Minister of a State differ on many matters
Ans: (c)
4. The Governor recommends to the President of India that breakdown of Constitutional
machinery in the State is imminent. The President makes a proclamation under Article
356. The action of the President:
(a) cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge of his emergency powers
(b) cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars the courts from reviewing political actions
(c) can be reviewed as it goes against Fundamental Rights
(d) can be reviewed as it is malafide
Ans: (d)
5. Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to
be approved by :
(a) Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must
approve it within 30 days of its first sitting
(b) New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Constitution
(c) Lok Sabha in next session after six months
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Ans: (a)
6. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of members of the
House of Parliament is applicable in the case of:
(a) amendment of the Constitution
(b) approval of proclamation of emergency
(c) impeachment of President
(d) disapproval of proclamation of emergency
Ans: (c)
7. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360
of the Constitution of India:1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of
two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the
resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency Is in operation. it is competent for the
President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all
or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding
the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
8. After approval by’ both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of emergency issued by
the President shall be valid:
(a) for period of six months
(b) for an indefinite period unless revoked by the subsequent proclamation
(c) for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after
every six months
(d) for further period of two months only
Ans: (c)
9. Every proclamation issued under Article 356 shall cease to operate at the expiration of:
(a) one month unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of
Parliament
(b) two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses
of Parliament
(c) six months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses
of Parliament
(d) three years unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses
of Parliament
Ans: (b)
10. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the State
Government:
(a) cannot legislate
(b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List
(c) can legislate on the subject in the State List
(d) is suspended
Ans: (a)11. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352:
(a) the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in
the State List
(b) the power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under
the Constitution is suspended
(c) a law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with prior
permission of the President
(d) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures
Ans: (a)
12. Which is not a correct statement regarding financial emergency?
(a) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
(b) The States may be asked to reserve the money bills for the consideration of the President
(c) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
(d) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
Ans: (c)
13. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a
Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of
the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not
covered by the Article? [CDS 2009]
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Punjab
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans: (b)
14. Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script as the
official language of the Union?
(a) 341
(b) 342
(c) 343
(d) 346
Ans: (c)
15. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunities in
public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the other minority communities?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 22
(d) Article 27
Ans: (b)
16. Part V of the Constitution deals with:
I. Union Executive
II. Parliament
III. Supreme Court and High Courts
IV. Comptroller and Auditor-General
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I only
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
17. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of scheduled areas and
tribes in Schedule V :
(a) may be altered by the Governor
(b) may be altered by Parliament by amendment requiring two-thirds majority
(c) cannot be altered
(d) may be altered by Parliament by ordinary legislation
Ans: (d)
18. Provisions of having a UPSC and Public Service Commision for States are enshrined in
:
(a) Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-324
(b) Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323
(c) Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-323
(d) Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-318
Ans: (b)
19. Match the following:
Articles Provisions
A. 19(1)(a) 1. Right to reside and settle in any part of the country
B. 19(1)(c) 2. Right to form associations or unions
C. 19(1)(e) 3. Freedom of speech and expression
D. 19(1)(t) 4. Right to practice any profession, or carry on any occupation, business or
trade
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 2 4 3(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (d)
20. Match the following:
A. Part I 1. Fundamental Rights
B. Part III 2. Panchayati Raj
C. Part IX 3. Citizenship
D. Part II 4. The Union and its Territory
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 3
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
21. Match the following:
A. Article 61 1. Removal of Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Article 67 2. Impeachement of President
C. Article 94 3. Removal of Vice President
D. Article 90 4. Removal of Speaker
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 3 4 1
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (a)
22. Match the following:
A. Abolition of Untouchability 1. Article 24
B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 23
C. Prohibition of Child labour 3. Article 17
D. Prohibition of Traffic in human beings 4. Article 18
A B C D(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (c)
23. Match the following:
A. Inter-State Council 1. Article 315
B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 280
C. Administrative Tribunals 3. Article 263
D. Union Public Service Commission 4. Article 323(A)
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (d)
24. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive
power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of
the executive power of the Union? [IAS 2004]
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356
Ans: (a)
25. Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission
to investigate the conditions for the improvement of: [CDS 2004]
(a) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Socially and educationally backward classes
(c) Socially and economically backward classes
(d) Educationally and economically backward classes
Ans: (a)
26. Match the following:
A. National Emergency 1. Article 356
B. Constitutional Emergency 2. Article 360C. Financial Emergency 3. Article 352
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 2
Ans: (d)
27. National Emergency has been declared so far:
(a) once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) four times
Ans: (c)
28. The provision for Contingency Fund of India as well as for each State has been made
under:
(a) Article 267
(b) Article 270
(c) Parliamentary Legislation
(d) Presidential order
Ans: (a)
29. During financial emergency, the President can:
1. ask the states to reduce the salaries arid allowances of all or any class of persons serving
in connection with the affairs of the State
2. ask the states to reserve money bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration
3. issue directions to states on financial matters
4. issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in
connection with the affairs of the Union
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
30. National emergency can be declared by the President only
I. on grounds of war
II. on grounds of external aggression
III. on grounds of internal disturbanceIV. on the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
31. During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of constitutional machinery
in a State the President can
I. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor
II. declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by Parliament
III. assume certain powers of the High Courts
IV. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) II and IV
Ans: (a)
32. When a financial emergency is proclaimed: [I. Tax 1994]
(a) repayment of government debts will stop
(b) payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
(c) salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
(d) Union Budget will not be presented
Ans: (b)
33. On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has been declared by the President of India:
(a) not even once
(b) in 1962
(c) in 1971
(d) in 1991
Ans: (a)
34. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can
be extended for a period
(a) not exceeding three months
(b) not exceeding nine months
(c) of one year at a time
(d) of two years at timeAns: (c)
35. The proclamation of emergency at the first instance can be restricted to:
(a) 3 months
(b) 15 days
(c) 6 months
(d) 60 days
Ans: (c)
36. Every proclamation issued under Article 352 shall be :
(a) laid before each House of the Parliament
(b) laid before the Lok Sabha
(c) decided by the Prime Minister and conveyed to the President
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
37. The President’s rule is imposed for the period of:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) till the next election is held
(d) it depends upon the President’s wish
Ans: (b)
38. The duration of proclamation of Financial Emergency is :
(a) at the first instance one month
(b) at the first instance two months
(c) at the first instance six months
(d) at the first instance one year
Ans: (b)
39. During the proclamation of National Emergency:
(a) all Fundamental Rights are suspended
(b) Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended
(c) Article 32 cannot be suspended
(d) Article 19 cannot be suspended
Ans: (b)
40. Emergency can be proclaimed:
(a) in whole of the country
(b) only in that part of country where actual aggression has taken place
(c) in any part of the country
(d) in the entire country or any part of territory of India
Ans: (d)
41. A resolution for the revocation of proclamation of National Emergency may be moved
by:
(a) ten members of Rajya Sabha
(b) ten members of Lok Sabha
(c) ten members of Parliament
(d) one-tenth of total membership of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
42. A resolution ratifying the proclamation of National Emergency requires to be passed:
(a) by Parliament
(b) by each House of Parliament
(c) by both the Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting
(d) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings with majority of total membership of
each House and by majority of not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting
Ans: (b)
43. The President can issue proclamation of emergency:
(a) on the advice of Prime Minister
(b) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(c) in his own decision
(d) when the decision of Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been
communicated to him in writing
Ans: (d)
44. Which of the following is/are resultant of a proclamation of National Emergency
because of war?
I. The Union Government can give directions to the States about how the executive power of the
State is to be exercised.
II. The Fundamental Rights stand automatically suspended.
III. The State Legislature is suspended.
IV. Parliament can make laws with respect to any subject in the State List.
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I only
(d) I and IV
Ans: (d)
45. In case of proclamation of emergency on grounds of war or external aggression:
(a) all Fundamental Rights will be automatically suspended
(b) the right to move a court for enforcement of any Fundamental Right is suspended(c) the President may order the suspension of enforcement of any Fundamental Right except
Article 20-21
(d) Parliament may authorise suspension of all Fundamental Rights
Ans: (c)